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This is a question Prejudice

"Are you prejudiced?" asks StapMyVitals. Have you been a victim of prejudice? Are you a columnist for a popular daily newspaper? Don't bang on about how you never judge people on first impressions - no-one will believe you.

(, Thu 1 Apr 2010, 12:53)
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perhaps I overstate it.
Latin as used in the post-classical era was far removed from the language that Romans spoke. By time literary Latin appears in significance in the historical record, it was already removed from the spoken language, Vulgar Latin. Historically, it is not unusual for literary languages to diverge significantly from their spoken counter parts.
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:51, 2 replies)
Fair enough.
And good point, well made.
:)
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:54, closed)
Latin
Most of Latin-based words in English come via Norman French and not directly from the Romans.

As you say - the largest body of Latin literature dates to the post-Roman age (Merovingian/Lombardic? periods in Gaul/Italia).

Use of Latin was anacronistic in late Roman times in Britain though - the version spoken here was `purer' than that of the continent. The language changed spellings (such as `ph' changing to `f' and grammar flattened out.
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 15:04, closed)

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