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This is a question Prejudice

"Are you prejudiced?" asks StapMyVitals. Have you been a victim of prejudice? Are you a columnist for a popular daily newspaper? Don't bang on about how you never judge people on first impressions - no-one will believe you.

(, Thu 1 Apr 2010, 12:53)
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When you say ' They fucked up the English language with their mangled latin words.'
Are you just confusing the middle classes with the Romans perhaps?
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:36, 3 replies)
What have they ever done for us?

(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:39, closed)
apart from the roads, sanitation, order...

(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:41, closed)
'twas the Grammar schools.
The bulk of our neo-classical twattery is down to spotty yoofs of yore not understanding latin. fwiw, them Romans never spoke Latin.
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:41, closed)
Really?
So all those Latin inscriptions on Roman coins, temples, monuments and stuff from Roman times are all faked then?
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:45, closed)
perhaps I overstate it.
Latin as used in the post-classical era was far removed from the language that Romans spoke. By time literary Latin appears in significance in the historical record, it was already removed from the spoken language, Vulgar Latin. Historically, it is not unusual for literary languages to diverge significantly from their spoken counter parts.
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:51, closed)
Fair enough.
And good point, well made.
:)
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:54, closed)
Latin
Most of Latin-based words in English come via Norman French and not directly from the Romans.

As you say - the largest body of Latin literature dates to the post-Roman age (Merovingian/Lombardic? periods in Gaul/Italia).

Use of Latin was anacronistic in late Roman times in Britain though - the version spoken here was `purer' than that of the continent. The language changed spellings (such as `ph' changing to `f' and grammar flattened out.
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 15:04, closed)
spoke Greek mainly didn't they?

(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:48, closed)
The Roman in the street did
I think the intelligensia and ruling classes spoke Latin
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:59, closed)
Greek
In Roman culture Greek was what you spoke to show how educated you were (in the same way that Latin is to us in the modern world). It was the language of philosophy, culture and art. The state language was Latin though.

In fact it remained Latin - even after the fall of the Western Empire. Latin was the official language in the Eastern/Byzantine Empire that survived another millenia and was only replaced by Greek in 620AD (150 years after Rome itself had fell) by Heraclius.

Before that even though every man and his canis spoke Greek the government and army continued to use Greek.
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 15:08, closed)
Wow
all those historians must have it terribly wrong
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:50, closed)
and what class do you think they are?
AHA!
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:52, closed)
working class naturally
the middle-class doesn't care about anything other than the Jonses of course.

Edit: I wasn't aware jobs had classes
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:56, closed)
Neo-classical Latin, true, they didn't speak that.
They were more like to speak something called the Vulgate, or the language of the common people (plebs).
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:53, closed)
That answer
deserves a click
(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 14:58, closed)
*beams*

(, Wed 7 Apr 2010, 15:34, closed)

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